Yes, your intuition (and algebra) is correct*. But don't take it from
me, the great Google provides many references to this fact as well
(take [1] for example).

[1] http://tex.stackexchange.com/questions/37912/how-to-draw-the-parallel-c=
ircuits-sign

*confidence rating: 99.9%

On Mon, Mar 23, 2015 at 5:01 PM, Chris Roper <caroper@gmail.com> wrote:
> I am very rusty in my analogue theory and came across this expression in =
a
> National Semi AppNote:
>
> R3 =3D R1 || R2
>
> Am I correct in thinking that it is saying that R3 is equivalent to R1 an=
d
> R2 in parallel.
> i.e.
>
> 1/R3 =3D 1/R1 + 1/R2
>
> Thanks
> Chris
> --
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Jason White
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