On 13/03/2012 15.26, RussellMc wrote: >> For a certain value of '"proper" [tm] rules of mathematics' that is >> certainly true. The trouble is in deciding that rules. > Quite apart from precedence rules, one of the "rules" which is > "universal" ([tm] again) is that multiplication is commutative. No! This is not a rule but a property that desced from definition (on reals= )! A rule can be arbitrary but a property (in mathematics) no! http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Multiplication#Properties > ie A x B =3D B x A > So far nobody seems to have addressed why this does not apply in the > given example if the answer is to equal "1". > > > Russell I lost the original post (subscribed to OT only two days ago) so i can miss= some=20 point. I think that there is a problem of context (every context has his rules): s= ome=20 context lacks of rules to forbid to write ambiguous formulas. For example: at school I never see the use of "/" inline, the line of fract= ion=20 must be used. When I write software am used to use parenthesis to guarantee that both I a= nd=20 Him (tm) dont see ambiguities. So I never would write an expression like this. Nicola --=20 http://www.piclist.com PIC/SX FAQ & list archive View/change your membership options at http://mailman.mit.edu/mailman/listinfo/piclist .