On 03/03/2011 04:32, John Gardner wrote:
> That the written language of  8 centuries ago is intelligible to a modern
> Russian-speaker is amazing - A rough equivalent, the Middle English of
> "The Canterbury Tales", is an exercise in translation, not reading, for t=
he
> uninitiated.
>
> Any thoughts about how this came about?
Normans (1066) and Dutch (1689).

Many other reasons too.
Henry II (1133) very French influences. The much of the last of Anglo=20
Saxon Lords swept away
Eleanor of Aquitaine (1122 - 1204) Regent of England, Duchess of=20
Aquitaine. Most powerful woman in Europe. Likely French 1st language
Richard I (8 September 1157 =96 6 April 1199) Only spoke French. Though he=
=20
didn't spend much time in England.
Henry III (1 October 1207 =96 16 November 1272). Civil War. French=20
speakers Dominate. Henry married Eleanor of Provence and he promoted=20
many of his French relatives to higher positions of power and wealth.

By time of Shakespeare we have approximately Modern English.
Pre Norman English is unreadable to anyone other than an Expert.
I can hardly read Chaucer ( 1343 =96 1400) at all, but it's recognisable.=20
http://www.courses.fas.harvard.edu/~chaucer/teachslf/snt-par.htm
I mostly can follow Shakespeare (1564 - 1616). But words I know may not=20
have the same meaning.

Modern Hebrew speakers can read most of the old Testament, but not parts=20
of Daniel as it switches to Aramaic.
Silver jewellery over 3,500 years old has been found with inscriptions=20
that match old Testement, but most Hebrew speakers can't read it as the=20
form of the alphabet's letters completely different to modern cursive or=20
printed hebrew.

Of course in Czarist times the Russian Court spoke French.

Uncooked
Ox, Cow, Bull, Cattle
Sheep
deer

Cooked
Beef, Mutton, Venison


--=20
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