Perhaps my understanding is wrong but I usually think about this in the following way: To get net heat flow of Pf from source at temperature T0 to sink at temperature T1 requires power P1. If T0>T1, the heat flow is spontaneous, P1 is negative, and you can actually get some useful work out of the system by using a heat engine. If T0 w= rote: > RussellMc wrote: >> 4. Deciding whether efficiency can be > 100% requires you to define >> efficiency in advance. >> Heat pumps can in fact deliver a net gain in available energy wrt >> energy in. This is NOT simply a "steal it from somewhere else and its >> zero sum all round" - it's a real gain - BUT does not break the laws >> of physics (as ye canna). It works by piling spare heat energy on top >> of existing heat energy rather than creating it from another form of >> energy, as is normally done. > > This is correct but to clarify for others, the reason the "free" heat isn= 't > really a violation of physics is because the same gain you got to make th= e > heat cheaply works backwards if you then want to convert that heat to any > other form of energy. > > > ******************************************************************** > Embed Inc, Littleton Massachusetts, http://www.embedinc.com/products > (978) 742-9014. =A0Gold level PIC consultants since 2000. > -- > http://www.piclist.com PIC/SX FAQ & list archive > View/change your membership options at > http://mailman.mit.edu/mailman/listinfo/piclist > --=20 http://www.piclist.com PIC/SX FAQ & list archive View/change your membership options at http://mailman.mit.edu/mailman/listinfo/piclist .