>> It's not that it's bothering me, it's the fact that none of the
>> proponents of 0 resistance so far bothered to answer my question about
>> how to in fact measure 0 Ohm.
>
> Current flowing without resistance can be sensed via its magnetic
> field, in ways similar to sensing voltage (ie in eeprom cells) without
> current...  Since the field doesn't degrade in a superconducting loop,
> one can conclude that the resistance is indeed zero.

Here you say "since the field doesn't degrade". As I see it, you can have a
theory that it doesn't degrade. That's good, and that's one part of what
science is about: creating theories. The other part, however, is verifying
or falsifying those theories. Here you need to think about how to measure
what the theory predicts.

"The field doesn't degrade." This has two components that need to be
measured: the intensity of the field, and then you need to relate that to a
time. I suppose you can't make the time infinite. So you have a finite
time, big but limited (like a few years). Then you need to measure that
field. For all I know, field measurements have limited precision; at least
when I do precision measurements, the result comes always in a form of "the
value is x, and that's within plus y, minus z". I haven't yet seen a
measurement device where either y or z were 0 (except in some cases where
it is impossible to measure something <0, and therefore for a result of 0 z
could be 0). If the two field measurements -- before and after time t --
have in fact the same result, you have a (small, but >0) maximum field
difference 2*z and a (big but finite) minimum time t. This gives a
degradation that may be 0 (or maybe even negative, considering a possible
y), but also may be a small value of 2*z/t, according to your measurements.

Where does this confirm that zero resistance exists?

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