>>That's a good trick. > > It's not a trick, you can buy these things, they are used in research. trick (trik) n., adj., v. n. 1. a crafty or underhanded device, maneuver, or stratagem intended to deceive or cheat; artifice; ruse; wile. 2. a roguish or mischievous act; practical joke; prank. 3. a clever or ingenious device or expedient; adroit technique: the tricks of the trade. 4. the art or knack of doing something skillfully: the trick of making others laugh. I was using the word along meaning number 3. Anything wrong with "clever or ingenious device"? I'm sure there are more such "tricks" that one can buy... > With superconductors and Josephson loops you have current flowing in a > circuit with zero resistance. There are superconducting laboratory magnets > in common use which can do this for months. You just supply LHe. If the > idea of current in a circuit of zero resistance bothers you [...] It's not that it's bothering me, it's the fact that none of the proponents of 0 resistance so far bothered to answer my question about how to in fact measure 0 Ohm. Sorry for maybe appearing dense here, but I don't understand a lot about superconductivity. However, I do understand a bit about measuring and precision of measurements, and every experiment I've seen so far had a limited precision. (Of course there is David's orang-utan experiment, but even that is limited, in duration. And I doubt his house is superconducting for orang-utans :) For example at http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Superconductor they write that "experiments have in fact demonstrated that currents in superconducting rings persist for years without any measurable degradation." Keyword here is "measurable". The /theory/ maybe says that resistance is 0 Ohms (again, I'm not a superconductor expert), but then they try to /verify/ that theory and say (correctly) "without measurable degradation." This would indeed indicate a /very/ low resistance, but if you take those experiments (and not the theory they are trying to verify), you probably will reach the conclusion that the results are that the resistance is smaller than a finite value x -- not that the resistance is 0. The whole discussion was about the difference between "practically 0" -- which means nothing else than "smaller than I'm able to or care to measure" and is what we mostly deal with --, and the postulated "literally 0" -- which still needs a way to verify its existence that nobody seems to be able to come up with. Just show me a way (a thought experiment) that measures 0 Ohms; come up with an experiment, say what you measure, how and with what precision (all finite, of course), and how this might lead to a measurement of 0 Ohms. That's all I was/am asking for. Should be easy, if it's actually as commonplace as stated. In that superconductor current experiment I cited above, it would require to measure the current for an infinite amount of time or with an infinitely low resolution to be able to state 0 Ohms resistance. The moment you introduce a limited amount of time and a limited resolution of current measurement, you will get a result of the type "the resistance is smaller than x" with x being > 0 Ohms. -- http://www.piclist.com hint: PICList Posts must start with ONE topic: [PIC]:,[SX]:,[AVR]: ->uP ONLY! [EE]:,[OT]: ->Other [BUY]:,[AD]: ->Ads