>   Does anyone know why Ohm's law is writtem V=IR (E=IR)
> instead of I=V/R?  Of course I know they're equivalent.
> I just wondered why - if I is the dependent variable and V
> and R are the independent variables - it's basic form
> isn't I=V/R.

        Hehe, good questions, perhaps because people are more "scared" of division
then they are of multiplication? Perhaps it's efficiency: V=IR requires one
less character then I=V/R. :) TTYL

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