Because the whole point of Ohm's law is that you can treat I, V or R as the dependent variable. Thus, all forms are equally good. Perhaps V=IR is the usual representation for typographical reasons (you can just write it out inline). Bob Ammerman RAm Systems ----- Original Message ----- From: "Rick Regan" To: Sent: Thursday, April 15, 2004 10:13 AM Subject: [EE]: Why isn't Ohm's Law written I=V/R? > Does anyone know why Ohm's law is writtem V=IR (E=IR) > instead of I=V/R? Of course I know they're equivalent. > I just wondered why - if I is the dependent variable and V > and R are the independent variables - it's basic form > isn't I=V/R. > > -- > http://www.piclist.com hint: To leave the PICList > mailto:piclist-unsubscribe-request@mitvma.mit.edu > -- http://www.piclist.com hint: To leave the PICList mailto:piclist-unsubscribe-request@mitvma.mit.edu