Does anyone know why Ohm's law is writtem V=IR (E=IR) instead of I=V/R? Of course I know they're equivalent. I just wondered why - if I is the dependent variable and V and R are the independent variables - it's basic form isn't I=V/R. -- http://www.piclist.com hint: To leave the PICList mailto:piclist-unsubscribe-request@mitvma.mit.edu