If I recall correctly, the general idea is that (perfect) voltage sources
have 0 impedance and (perfect) current sources have infinite impedance. If
you consider the 0 impedance of the voltage source, the two sides are
actually 'connected' in parallel.

I hope I got it right. ;-)

Tal

> -----Original Message-----
> From: pic microcontroller discussion list
> [mailto:PICLIST@MITVMA.MIT.EDU]On Behalf Of Dave Dilatush
> Sent: Tuesday, June 11, 2002 2:23 PM
> To: PICLIST@MITVMA.MIT.EDU
> Subject: Re: [PIC]:strange analog in problem
>
>
> Dale wrote...
>
> >Maybe I'm just slow or theory-challenged, but I don't
> >see how two resistors to two different sources would
> >qualify as "parallel".
>
> "Slow" you're definitely not; theory-challenged, perhaps.
>
> For impedance-determining purposes the two halves of the pot do
> indeed appear as if they were connected in parallel.
>
> All this is related to a thing called Thevenin's Theorem:
>
> http://hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/hbase/electric/thevenin.html
>
> DD
>
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