So you are saying treating a $20000/year person with a $100 fine is the same
as treating a millionare with a $100 fine?? I think people sometimes forget
WHY there are laws, what they are meant to accomplish. If you go under the
assumption that law is supposed to "help" people make certain choices, with
the knowledge that NOT choosing one way will result in penalty, will the
"penalty" of a $100 fine to a millionare persuade his descision? Of course
not, $100 is nothing to him. The situation is completely different with the
other person. "equality" before the law doesn't necesssarily mean that if I
steal a piece of bread I deserve death because a person who murdered a bunch
of people got a death sentence (after all we both committed a crime, and
wshould be treated equally, right?).

> -----Original Message-----
> From: pic microcontroller discussion list
> [mailto:PICLIST@MITVMA.MIT.EDU]On Behalf Of rad0
> Sent: Wednesday, June 05, 2002 13:44
> To: PICLIST@MITVMA.MIT.EDU
> Subject: Re: [OT]: $1-a-day wages
>
>
> not really, equality before the law means that the law
> treats everyone the same,
>
> there is no such thing as a quantity of 'penalty'...
>
> this is something that you are creating
>
>
> > Yes, of course it depends on your definition of "equality",
> either it's a
> > percentage of income (so that the "penalty" is equal) or it's a fixed
> amount
> > (an equal amount, but unequal level of penalty). Which is more fair in
> your
> > eyes?
> >
> > > -----Original Message-----
> > > From: pic microcontroller discussion list
> > > [mailto:PICLIST@MITVMA.MIT.EDU]On Behalf Of rad0
> > > Sent: Wednesday, June 05, 2002 11:59
> > > To: PICLIST@MITVMA.MIT.EDU
> > > Subject: Re: [OT]: $1-a-day wages
> > >
> > >
> > > equality before the law, eh?
> > >
>
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>
>

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