Yes, of course it depends on your definition of "equality", either it's a
percentage of income (so that the "penalty" is equal) or it's a fixed amount
(an equal amount, but unequal level of penalty). Which is more fair in your
eyes?

> -----Original Message-----
> From: pic microcontroller discussion list
> [mailto:PICLIST@MITVMA.MIT.EDU]On Behalf Of rad0
> Sent: Wednesday, June 05, 2002 11:59
> To: PICLIST@MITVMA.MIT.EDU
> Subject: Re: [OT]: $1-a-day wages
>
>
> equality before the law, eh?
>
>
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Herbert Graf" <mailinglist@FARCITE.NET>
> To: <PICLIST@MITVMA.MIT.EDU>
> Sent: Wednesday, June 05, 2002 10:35 AM
> Subject: Re: [OT]: $1-a-day wages
>
>
> > No, of course not, rich people wouldn't be "rich" if the prices
> for items
> > were more then the common man. However, remember what a "fine"
> is, it is a
> > penalty. Is $100 to a millionare the same "penalty" as $100 for someone
> > making $20000/year? Of course not, and that is the difference. I'm not
> > trying to get rid of "rich" people, I'm just saying that a $100
> "penalty"
> > for someone who owns a $40 million house is not much of a penalty is it?
> > TTYL
>

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